Reproduction (DP IB Biology)

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  • What is sexual reproduction?

    Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of the nuclei of two gametes to form a zygote, producing offspring that are genetically different from each other.

  • What is a gamete?

    A gamete is a sex cell (e.g., sperm and ovum in animals; pollen nucleus and ovum in plants) that contains half the number of chromosomes as a normal body cell.

  • What is asexual reproduction?

    Asexual reproduction involves only one parent, with no gametes or fertilisation, resulting in offspring that are genetically identical to the parent (clones).

  • What is binary fission?

    Binary fission is a type of asexual reproduction in bacteria where the organism produces exact genetic copies of itself.

  • How do sexual and asexual reproduction differ in the number of parents involved?

    Sexual reproduction involves two parents, while asexual reproduction involves only one parent.

  • What type of cell division is involved in sexual reproduction?

    Sexual reproduction involves meiosis, which produces genetically diverse gametes.

  • What type of cell division is involved in asexual reproduction?

    Asexual reproduction involves mitosis, resulting in genetically identical offspring.

  • What is fertilisation?

    Fertilisation is the fusion of gametes.

  • What is the role of meiosis in sexual reproduction?

    The role of meiosis in sexual reproduction is to break up parental combinations of alleles.

  • True or False?

    The fusion of gametes produces new combinations of alleles.

    True.

    The fusion of gametes produces new combinations of alleles. New alleles are formed because each parent contributes their alleles to form a new diploid cell.

  • What are the male and female gametes in animals?

    Male gametes are sperm cells, and female gametes are ova (eggs).

  • What are the male and female gametes in plants?

    Male plant gametes are carried in pollen grains, and female plant gametes are held in the ovules within the ovary.

  • What happens during fertilisation?

    Fertilisation is the fusion of a male and female gamete, producing a zygote with new combinations of alleles, leading to genetic variation.

  • How do male and female gametes differ in reproductive strategies?

    Males produce many thousands of sperm per ejaculation to increase chances of fertilisation, while females typically release only one egg per menstrual cycle.

  • Why is the male gamete smaller than the female gamete?

    The male gamete is smaller than the female gamete because the male gamete travels to the female gamete, with less food reserves than the egg.

  • What is the function of the ovaries?

    The ovaries produce ova (eggs) and female sex hormones like estrogen and progesterone.

  • What is the function of the fallopian tubes (oviducts)?

    The fallopian tubes transport the egg from the ovary to the uterus and are the site where fertilisation typically occurs.

  • What is the function of the uterus?

    The uterus is where a fertilised egg implants and develops into a fetus.

  • What is the function of the cervix?

    The cervix is the lower part of the uterus that opens into the vagina; it allows the passage of sperm into the uterus and, during childbirth, dilates to allow the baby to pass through.

  • What is the function of the testes?

    The testes produce sperm cells and male sex hormones like testosterone.

  • What is the function of the sperm duct?

    The sperm duct transports sperm from the testes to the urethra during ejaculation.

  • What is the function of the prostate gland?

    The prostate gland produces a fluid called semen, which contains nutrients required for the sperm cells to swim.

  • What is the urethra?

    The urethra is a tube that transports urine from the bladder out of the body. Both males and females have a urethra.

  • What is the menstrual cycle?

    The menstrual cycle consists of the ovarian and uterine cycles. It is the sequence of events that includes the thickening of the uterus lining, ovulation and menstruation; it is controlled by a series of hormones.

  • What is the role of oestradiol (oestrogen) in the menstrual cycle?

    Oestradiol causes the uterus lining to thicken during the first part of the menstrual cycle. It also interacts with other hormones to bring about the maturation of an egg cell.

  • What happens to oestradiol levels during the menstrual cycle?

    Oestradiol levels rise from day 1 and peak just before day 14. The peak in oestradiol occurs just before the egg cell is released.

  • True or False?

    An increase in progesterone results in the loss of the uterus lining.

    False.

    A decrease in progesterone levels at the end of the cycle results in the loss of the lining during menstruation.

  • What happens to progesterone levels during the menstrual cycle?

    Progesterone levels are low from day 1 – 14 and starts to rise once ovulation has occurred. Levels then decrease towards the end of the cycle.

  • What is the role of FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) in the menstrual cycle?

    FSH is released by the pituitary gland and causes an egg to start maturing in the ovary. It also stimulates the ovaries to start releasing oestrogen.

  • What hormone is released by the pituitary gland when oestrogen levels peak?

    When oestrogen levels reach their peak the pituitary gland is stimulated to release LH (luteinising hormone).

  • Which hormones interact in a negative feedback loop within the menstrual cycle?

    Oestrogen and FSH interact in a negative feedback loop. When oestrogen levels are high enough, it inhibits the secretion of FSH.

    OR

    Progesterone, FHS and LH interact in a negative feedback loop. Progesterone thickens and maintains the endometrium but also inhibits the secretion of FSH and LH from the pituitary gland.

  • Which two hormones interact in a positive feedback loop during the menstrual cycle?

    Oestrogen and LH interact in a positive feedback loop. After ovulation, LH causes the wall of the follicle to develop into the corpus luteum, which secretes more oestrogen.

  • Which hormones are used during IVF (in vitro fertilisation) treatment?

    The hormones FSH, LH and progesterone are given during IVF.

    • FSH and LH stimulate the development of follicles

    • Progesterone is given to ensure the endometrium is maintained

  • What is superovulation?

    Superovulation is when many more follicles than normal begin to mature due to artificial doses of FSH given at a much higher concentration than is present during a normal menstrual cycle.

  • Define fertilisation.

    Fertilisation is the fusion of gamete (haploid) nuclei, resulting in the formation of a zygote (diploid nucleus).

  • What is the process of fertilisation in humans?

    Fertilisation in humans involves the fusion of a sperm cell with an egg cell, and entry to the egg by the sperm nucleus which has its tail and mitochondria destroyed in the process.

  • What is the result of fertilisation?

    The result of fertilisation is the formation of a zygote/fertilised egg cell.

  • What is a zygote?

    A zygote is a diploid cell formed by the fusion of a sperm and an egg cell during fertilisation.

  • What is the function of the sperm's enzymes when reaching the egg?

    The sperm's enzymes digest the egg cell's glycoprotein layer to allow the sperm to reach the egg's membrane.

  • True or False?

    Vesicles released from the egg destroy the sperm's nucleus upon entry.

    False.

    Vesicles released from the egg destroy the sperm's flagellum (tail) and mitochondria upon entry.

  • True or False?

    The sperm's mitochondrial DNA is inherited by the zygote.

    False.

    The sperm's mitochondrial DNA is destroyed, so it is not inherited by the zygote.

  • True or False.

    The nuclear membranes of both sperm and egg dissolve during the process of fertilisation.

    True.

    During fertilisation dissolution of nuclear membranes of both sperm and egg nuclei occurs.

  • What happens after the nuclear membranes of the sperm and egg nuclei dissolve?

    After the nuclear membranes dissolve, all condensed chromosomes participate in joint mitosis to produce two diploid nuclei.

  • What is the purpose of joint mitosis in the final stages of fertilisation?

    The purpose of joint mitosis is to produce two diploid nuclei which become the zygote.

  • What are the main stages of sexual reproduction in flowering plants?

    The main stages of sexual reproduction are the production of gametes inside ovules and pollen grains, pollination, pollen development and fertilisation to produce an embryo.

  • True or False?

    Pollen grains contain male gametes.

    True.

    Pollen grains contain male gametes.

  • State the function of the anther.

    The anther is the part of the stamen that produces the male gametes.

  • What happens after fertilisation in flowering plants?

    After fertilisation, the ovule becomes a seed (an embryo) and the ovary develops into the fruit.

  • What is the stigma on a flower?

    The stigma is the part of the female reproductive organ that receives the pollen.

  • What is the function of the ovary in a flower?

    The ovary contains the ovules where female gametes develop.

  • What is the role of the pollen tube in fertilisation in plants?

    The pollen tube grows from the pollen grain down the style to the ovary, allowing male nuclei to travel to the ovule.

  • True or False?

    Some flowering plants are hermaphroditic which means they contain both male and female parts.

    True.

    Some flowering plants are hermaphroditic which means they contain both male and female parts. However, reproduction in flowering plants is sexual, even if a plant species is hermaphroditic.

  • Define cross-pollination.

    Cross-pollination occurs when pollen from one plant is transferred to the stigma of another plant of the same species.

  • True or False?

    Cross-pollination increases genetic variation.

    True.

    Cross-pollination increases genetic variation.

  • What is self-pollination?

    Self-pollination occurs when pollen from a flower lands on its own stigma or on the stigma of another flower on the same plant.

  • State the function of nectar in insect-pollinated flowers.

    Nectar attracts insects to the flower, aiding in the transfer of pollen.

  • True or False?

    Pollen from insect-pollinated flowers is sticky.

    True.

    Pollen from insect-pollinated flowers is sticky to adhere to insects.

  • What adaptation do wind-pollinated plants have to aid in pollination?

    Wind-pollinated plants produce large amounts of light, non-sticky pollen that can be carried by the wind.

  • Define self-incompatibility mechanism.

    A self-incompatibility mechanism is a genetic process that prevents self-pollination by inhibiting pollen tube growth or fertilisation from the same plant.

  • What are adaptations of plants to prevent self-pollination ?

    Adaptations to prevent self-pollination, and promote cross-pollination include different maturation times for pollen and stigma, separate male and female flowers or male and female plants.

  • True or False?

    Wind-pollinated plants are less likely to self-pollinate than insect-pollinated plants.

    True.

    Wind-pollinated plants are less likely to self-pollinate due to the random dispersal of pollen by the wind.

  • What is a disadvantage of self-pollination?

    A disadvantage of self-pollination is that it reduces genetic variety in the offspring, leading to inbreeding and less adaptability to environmental changes.

  • Define seed dispersal.

    Seed dispersal is the process of distributing seeds away from the parent plant to reduce competition.

  • True or False?

    Pollination and seed dispersal are the same process.

    False.

    Pollination is the transfer of pollen from anther to stigma, while seed dispersal is the distribution of mature seeds.

  • What are the methods of seed dispersal?

    Methods of seed dispersal include wind, water, animals, and explosions.

  • State the role of animals in seed dispersal.

    Animals help in seed dispersal by eating fleshy fruits and dispersing seeds through egestion or by carrying sticky seeds on their fur.

  • Define germination.

    Germination is the start of growth in a seed after dormancy when conditions become favourable.

  • True or False?

    Water is required for seed germination.

    True.

    Water is required for seed germination to allow the seed to swell, burst the seed coat, and activate enzymes.

  • What is the function of the radicle during germination?

    The radicle is the first structure to emerge from the seed and forms the initial root that grows downward into the soil.

  • What are the three factors required for successful germination?

    The three factors required for germination are water, oxygen, and warmth.

  • What is the role of the hypocotyl in seed germination?

    The hypocotyl is the curved portion of the plant shoot that appears above ground and grows upwards, helping the seedling to emerge.

  • What is the function of food reserves during germination?

    Food reserves provide energy and nutrients for the growth and development of the embryo during germination.

  • What are cotyledons?

    Cotyledons are early leaf structures in a seed that help transfer food reserves to the embryo during germination.

  • Describe the mobilisation of food reserves during germination.

    During germination, food reserves in the seed, mainly endosperm, are mobilised and transferred to the growing embryo to support its development.

  • What are secondary sexual characteristics?

    Secondary sexual characteristics are physical features that develop during puberty under the control of reproductive hormones, but are not directly involved in reproduction.

  • What are the two main types of sex hormones involved in puberty?

    The two main types of sex hormones involved in puberty are gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and steroid sex hormones like oestrogen and testosterone.

  • True or False?

    The hypothalamus secretes GnRH, which is detected by the pituitary gland.

    True.

    The onset of puberty is triggered by the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus, which is detected by the pituitary gland.

  • What does the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) trigger?

    The release of GnRH triggers the onset of increased luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) release.

  • What is the effect of the increase in sex hormones during puberty?

    The increase in sex hormone production during puberty leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics.

  • Define luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

    LH and FSH are hormones produced by the pituitary gland that enhance the effects of the sex hormones oestrogen and testosterone during puberty.

  • Define the term gametogenesis.

    Gametogenesis is the process of gamete (sperm or egg) formation, involving both mitosis and meiosis.

  • Where are sperm cells produced?

    Sperm cells are produced in the testes in males.

  • What are spermatogonia?

    Spermatogonia are the diploid cells in the germinal epithelium of the seminiferous tubules that divide by mitosis to produce new germ cells.

  • What is the role of Sertoli cells in spermatogenesis?

    Sertoli cells form the inner lining of the seminiferous tubules and provide support and nourishment to the developing sperm cells.

  • True or False?

    Spermatogenesis involves only meiosis.

    False.

    Spermatogenesis involves both mitosis and meiosis.

  • Where are ova (eggs) produced?

    Ova (eggs) are produced in the ovaries of females.

  • Define oogonia.

    Oogonia are the diploid cells in the germinal epithelium of the ovaries that divide by mitosis to produce new germ cells.

  • What happens to the oogonia during the first 7 months of fetal development?

    During the first 7 months of fetal development, the oogonia in the ovaries divide by mitosis to form several million primary follicles.

  • What is the role of the follicle cells in oogenesis?

    Follicle cells develop around the oogonia as they enter meiosis I, forming primary follicles.

  • Describe the completion of meiosis in oogenesis.

    The secondary oocyte formed after meiosis I does not complete meiosis II until after a sperm cell enters it, at which point the oocyte becomes an ovum.

  • What is polyspermy?

    Polyspermy is the entry of more than one sperm cell into a single oocyte during fertilisation.

  • What is the zona pellucida?

    The zona pellucida is the layer of glycoproteins surrounding the secondary oocyte that sperm cells must digest to reach the oocyte's cell surface membrane.

  • What is the acrosome reaction?

    The acrosome reaction is the process where sperm cells release digestive enzymes from the acrosome structure to digest through the zona pellucida.

  • What triggers the cortical reaction in the oocyte?

    The fusion of the sperm and oocyte cell membranes triggers the movement of cortical granules to the cell surface, releasing enzymes that harden the zona pellucida and prevent polyspermy.

  • True or False?

    Fertilisation is complete once the male and female nuclei have fused.

    True.

    Fertilization is completed when the male and female nuclei fuse inside the ovum.

  • What is a blastocyst?

    A blastocyst is the hollow ball-shaped structure that forms after the fertilized ovum undergoes several mitotic divisions.

  • Where is the blastocyst located before implantation?

    The blastocyst is located in the oviduct before it reaches the uterus and implants in the endometrium around 7 days after fertilisation.

  • What happens to the zona pellucida during blastocyst development?

    The zona pellucida that surrounded the fertilized ovum breaks down and is lost by the time the blastocyst reaches the uterus.

  • What is the purpose of the blastocyst's finger-like projections during implantation?

    The finger-like projections allow the blastocyst to penetrate and implant into the endometrium of the uterus.

  • What happens during the exchange between the blastocyst and the mother's blood after implantation?

    After implantation, there is an exchange of nutrients and oxygen between the blastocyst and the mother's blood.

  • What is the role of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?

    hCG stimulates the corpus luteum to maintain production of oestrogen and progesterone, and it also stimulates growth of the placenta and uterus during early pregnancy.

  • True or False?

    hCG levels decline after the first 12 weeks of pregnancy.

    True.

    hCG levels decline after 12 weeks as the placenta takes over production of oestrogen and progesterone.

  • Describe how a pregnancy test is used to indicate pregnancy.

    Pregnancy tests detect the presence of hCG in the mother's urine or blood to confirm a positive pregnancy. Monoclonal antibodies with attached dyes will react with hCG hormone (from the mothers urine) causing a colour change in the results window.

  • What type of antibody is used in pregnancy tests?

    Pregnancy tests use monoclonal antibodies that bind to the hCG antigen.

  • Define the role of progesterone during pregnancy.

    In addition to preparing and maintaining the lining of the uterus, progesterone inhibits uterine contractions and the production of oxytocin, preventing premature labour.

  • What triggers the start of labour at the end of pregnancy?

    At the end of pregnancy, fetal oestrogen levels increase, signalling for the placenta to stop producing progesterone. At this point, the pituitary gland increases production of oxytocin beginning the onset of labour.

  • Describe the role of oxytocin during labour.

    Oxytocin stimulates contractions of the uterine muscles, which strengthen and increase in a positive feedback loop.

  • What causes the cervix to dilate and the baby to be delivered during birth?

    Uterine contractions cause the cervix to dilate and the amniotic sac to rupture, allowing the baby to be pushed out through the vagina.

  • Define the term "positive feedback loop" in relation to labour.

    The positive feedback loop refers to how uterine contractions trigger the release of more oxytocin, which in turn causes stronger contractions.

  • What is the role of the placenta in placental mammals?

    In placental mammals, the placenta is responsible for the exchange of substances between the mother and fetus, as well as the production of pregnancy hormones.

  • True or False?

    The mother's and fetus's blood mix directly in the placenta.

    False.

    The mother's and fetus's blood never mix directly, but are separated by the placental barrier.

  • Suggest what is meant by the term placental barrier.

    The placental barrier is a selectively permeable membrane that allows the exchange of certain substances between the mother's and fetus's blood while restricting the passage of others.

  • What substances can cross the placental barrier from mother to fetus, and from fetus to mother?

    From mother to fetus: oxygen, antibodies, water, glucose.

    From fetus to mother: carbon dioxide, water, urea.

  • What is the importance of the structure of the placental villi?

    The large surface area of the placental villi increases are area and therefore the efficiency of the exchange of substances.

  • Describe a feature of the placenta which makes it specifically adapted for exchange.

    The placenta has a large surface area (of the placental villi) to maximise the exchange of substances between the mother and fetus.

    It also has a good blood supply to maintain concentration gradients for exchange.

  • Define the term menopause.

    Menopause is when a female stops having periods for longer than 12 months, typically occurring between 45 and 55 years old as a natural part of ageing.

  • What is HRT?

    HRT is a treatment that replaces the hormones oestrogen and progesterone to relieve the symptoms of the menopause.

  • True or False?

    Early epidemiological studies showed that HRT increased the risk of coronary heart disease. (NOS)

    False.

    Early epidemiological studies showed that HRT decreased the risk of coronary heart disease. However, later randomised controlled trials showed an increased risk.

  • The correlation between HRT and decreased incidence of CHD was throught to be a cause-and-effect relationship. What is meant by cause-and-effect relationship?

    A cause-and-effect relationship refers to a connection between two events where one event (the cause) directly influences or produces a change in the other event (the effect).

    This suggests that HRT would be directly responsible for reducing the risk of heart disease, rather than merely being associated with it by chance or due to other factors.

  • What is the timing hypothesis in relation to HRT and CHD? (NOS)

    The timing hypothesis is the concept that HRT started in the early years of menopause provides benefit to the heart with reduced risk of CHD, whereas starting HRT several years post-menopause may increase risk.